Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 02:26
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What made you feel satisfied about your life today?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why am I not getting any atheists to debate with? Are they scared?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.